common passageway

Hello


In 1982 I purchased my land and built a new commercial building for my business, this property had a ( common passageway) that I knew of but it for rail road use. The original building actually was over this 14' wide passage way in the 1800’s till it burned down in mid 1982. This right was given to the Rail Road in 1852 and deeded in 1854, The city I have this property is Lawrence, Massachusetts, the city fire truck in 1903 was still horse and buggy with pump on buggy. So along comes this man and buys 12K sq ft of land on the other side of my fenced property (1 year ago) where there use to be rail road tracks 40 or more years ago, he tells me he is going to park his trailer trucks on his property and he has the right to use my driveway as the railroad told him so because of this passageway ! ? The city said I did own all the land and that there is no passaway any longer but his lawyer says differently. What I can tell you is that this land was fenced off since I purchased it 26 years ago and paid taxes as well, if this happens it will cut my parking in half, this driveway is only 18.6 wide and 4.3 of it belongs to the building next door which is also mine, any input would help me alot, I have an actual railroad map (1891) & the original building covered about 30 % or more of this passageway, I know the property very well as I was born across the street and no thru way was possible. Thank You for taking the time to read this posting.
Bill

It is a bit hard to read your post due to grammar errors.

“I have the rights to use your driveway as the railroad told him so !?”

He could be bluffing. Unless the railroad contacts you, ignore this.

“The city said I did own all the land and that there is no passaway any longer but his lawyer says differantly.”

His lawyer is not your lawyer. You have no obligation to listen to what he says. Keep the fence up, don’t respond to anyone unless you get sued. (It may never happen.)