Question re: property in divorce

My husband and I separated in January. Our home (it's paid off) was in his name only. In April, he deeded the home over to my name only (without my knowledge), removing his name/ownership completely. He said that he wanted me to have a place to live and that he'd be moving out soon.

My question is: can he respond in the divorce saying that he wants ownership of the house back, or even half of it, even though he willingly gave it to me? In my petition, I asked for nothing, but did add that he willfully transferred the property to me already and requested that not be changed.

I appreciate your time and any help you can offer. I live in Montana and am handling my divorce without an attorney.
Tracy

This looks like good information. Look under section "How is property divided".

http://www.divorcenet.com/states/montana/mt_faq01

Looks like the court can apportion all property owned by either or both spouses regardless of how title is held and when or how it was acquired. Thus it does not matter if the house is in your name, his name or both names. The courts will divide it "equitably".

Thank you very much! It helps me a lot to know that! And also thank you for the link.

Tracy