No accountablility

Wondering if there is a tort case for "Fraudulent Inducement to Marry". Divorce is final after three awful years of negilgent husband, attorneys, notaries, court reporter, and judge. First of all, I found a forged document with my nickname that was notarized and dated the day before the marriage.. My attorney wrongly told me a single signature could not be verified, only to get a forensic report two years too late on my own. Affirming my accusation... The Notary dissappeared, and the Supreme Court of my state, says they are not responsible because the signature book was never turned in and their comission expired... Then the court reporter, rewrote the testimony in the first hearing and again, the supreme court, who is 'head of the court reporters, said it will take two years to decifer the court reporters notes... It's like falling down the "rabbit hole" where every bit of common sense gets tossed to the wind... The judge wouldn't look at the forsenic report, because it was not presented in the first hearing, and I had to fire my attorney for negligence before my last hearing just after I found his name on the bar website under probations...

Back to the original question.... This jerk that I married, forged my signature the day before we were married.. Which clearly indicates " Fraudulent Inducement to Marry"... Is there a tort case around this matter? thanks, Sherlockeene.....

I ran across rampant unaccountablility, it would appear that "60 minutes" might like a shot at the state of my state's legal system...

What type of document was it?

Forged document was a half witted prenup.. Using bizaar nonsense format.. With numerous mistakes in real estate legal descriptions, jurat on blank page, information unknown to myself... Sherlock....

How did he induce you to marry him because of a forged prenup that you only just found out about? I don't think their is a tort as it applies to your situation and I don't know how it would apply to your case.

The only situation that may be similar would be if a husband promises his soon to be wife that they would have children and now wife founds out her new husband is impotent and can't have children. She has been frauded into marrying him because she thought that they would have a family together. This would not be a seperate tort but in many states would be grounds for an annulment.

It seems that when a person makes a long term committment of marriage, and then intentionally forges a document the day before their wedding.. they are enticing another to marry under fraudulent pretenses.. Pretenses of an honest long term loving marriage contract... A promise is a promise, be it baby or love... They were knowingly, unwilling or unable to keep that promise? Why are they not equally a Fradulent Inducement to marry...




The discovery of the forged document is the proof , with black and white evidence of their deceit... thank you for your replies...Sherlock

You probably want to speak to a Family Law attorney to find out if there is a specific tort in your state that is similar to what this discussion is about.

Deceit is not a cause of action in and of itself... Just like it is not illegal to promise to marry someone or otherwise lie to them in order to get them to sleep with you.

I think you are barking up the wrong tree here. If you have a divorce already, consider it done and move on. Your divorce lawyer can tell you your options for that case.

If you want to attack your ex-husband, or something like that, see if the DA will pursue criminal charges against him for forging the document. You may not get anything financially out of it, but he may spend some time in jail.