Is this legal?

On September 15th 2006, my partner of six years and I went to the town of Strasburg Virginia to close on a house that we wanted to by as a retirement property in the local town of Mount. Jackson.* As we sat at the table, our realtor, the lawyer for the closing, my partner and myself began the preceding. My partner and I were handed a set of documents and at the top of the paper it stated, “partner’s full name and my full name” and then next to my name it stated “An unmarried man”. I was taken back by this and asked why it said this and why didn’t it say that next to my partner’s name. I was told “because he was divorced” and it was standard practice. Standard practice? *This is a small town and though I am aware they may be uncomfortable with our lifestyle, can they “label” me in an official document?
I have been through this preceding three other times with properties I purchased with my former partner who is now deceased and I have never seen that description next to my name.
Is this legal?
I appreciate your thoughts on the matter

Isn't there something about that in our constitution that mentions race, ethniticity, marital status, etc?

The law says you cannot be discriminated against on those basis. He wasn't discriminated against--he just didn't like being labeled single--I guess he wanted to have the paperwork somehow reflect his s3xual preference.

Often times I am listed on documents as single, although I am recently widowed after being married for twenty years. I am still called Mrs. Grace, and I still wear my wedding rings, and such. People still think of me as my late husbands wife, but I am, technically, single.

This posting was from two years ago, so I suspect the poster has long since vanished from this forum. But his situation is not unlike two people that are not legally married buying a home. If I and my best friend bought a house, he would be listed as divorced and I would be listed as single. The truth is, in other situations, HE is listed as single ( since he divorced almost twenty years ago ) and I would be listed as widowed. It all just depends on the protocol of the paperwork being completed. It isn't meant to be a criticism of anyone's personal life or s3xual preferences.

From my point that is definitely discriminating.

Cite the law on which your comment is based. Which law was violated in by someone having 'single', or 'married', or 'divorced' by their name?

Discrimination means he is treated differently from other people in his situation. He was not treated differently than anyone else holding his legal status ( single, married, divorced, etc)... ( or if he was, he didn't say he was). Having "single" on a piece of paper ( when, at the time, same s3x marriages were not legally recognized) is not damaging or punitive.

As I stated in my previous posting, I am called 'Ms', Mrs. and even "Miss". My recent court proceedings labeled me as SINGLE, although I am, in fact widowed after being married for twenty years. What legal grounds do I have to claim discrimination?

Now, if the bank had told him, "I am sorry, Mr. Poster, we cannot allow same s3x couples to obtain loans from our bank", then that would be discriminatory.

How is having 'single' by your name an act of discrimination? What law are you basing your opinion on? It may not be politically correct, and it may not even be polite, but illegally discriminating? No way.

OK, SMOKEY. Stop with the harassment!

To the Poster:
This wording is an example of protecting the legal thread of ownership to make it easier (relative confidence in this thread having no other marital heirs) to provide title insurance. Either you or your partner can be married these days to each other or to women or to men, but this particular document shows that you have no living partner through marriage who could lay claim to this real estate. That protects you both from having some person claim to be in wedded bliss and come after the property if one of you dies. Of COURSE it might not be true, but it is like putting a piece of your history in the document to prevent your wishes in owning this property with your partner from being subverted by an interloper.

The person who wrote it apparently didn't realize that the notary basis of this document gives credence to your statement that can be taken by a court of law...as indicating that you have NEVER been married. Thus there could be no other claims unless you lied. Today, lots of people lie about lots of things, so the folks who provide title insurance still have their work cut out for them... but this little convention does help.