View Single Post
Old 04-26-2015, 12:08 AM   #1 (permalink)
Junior Member
Join Date: Apr 2015
Posts: 1
Dumb (!) question

I was reading some of the threads here, and got to the one about the person in Texas who now has problems, apparently because the divorce decree didn't have the physical description of the marital property awarded in the decree.

My question: since most people (the ones getting divorced) are clueless, why are they being penalized for what seem (often) to be procedural issues that the professionals or regulators (state) are supposedly in charge of?

I hope that isn't coming across wrong, just that I lost even my personal possessions when my attorney withdrew after the decree came out. It was the most vague and silent thing and I had just informed my attorney of fraud I had discovered (after hearing, of course) that pertained to previous Court action ex filed against me. She withdrew when I insisted SOMETHING needed to be filed timely to make sure that the orders were carried out; my petition for clatification (whatever it's called) being denied ... and being filed in the CCS as having been filed by the ex. And of course, he circumvented all the orders.

This is now the THIRD time he successfully used the Court (same one) to defraud me ... and this time, he left our young adult daughter with ruined credit. Yet I can't do much of anything ... though I can see a lot of ways that people could be safeguarded through some sort of standards or standardization to make sure nothing is missed.

Any insight would be appreciated; since divorce is now "no fault" a person really doesn't have a "choice" but seems they should have some assurance the professionals and government at least get it right.Thanks!
Adda is offline   Reply With Quote